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PSC finally responds to AG’s recommendation to take action
The Public Service Commission (PSC) has responded to the Attorney General’s recommendation that disciplinary action be taken against Deputy Solicitor General Azard Navavi and State Counsel Malik Azeez, who were entrusted with the file on National Thowheed Jamaat (NTJ) and its leader Zahran Hashim, for lapses in handling the case, the Presidential Commission of Inquiry (PCoI) investigating Easter Sunday attacks was informed yesterday.
This was revealed when Attorney General (AG) Dappula de Livera’s Coordinating Officer, State Counsel, Nishara Jayaratne appeared before the PCoI.
The commission prevented the counsel disclosing the PSC decision.
A request by Shavindra Fernando, PC, who appeared for Navavi, to declare Jayaratne guilty of contempt of PCoI was rejected by a majority of the Commissioners.
AG Dappula de Livera’s Coordinating Officer, State Counsel, Nishara Jayaratne was ordered to appear before the PCoI considering a request made by Shavindra Fernando, PC, on 15 December 2020.
On that day, it was revealed that the Attorney General had recommended disciplinary action against Deputy Solicitor General Azard Navavi and State Counsel Malik Azeez, who were given the file on National Thowheed Jamaat (NTJ) and its leader Zahran Hashim as far back as 2017. A preliminary inquiry on the duo by a three member committee had also been concluded and the investigators recommendations together with charge sheets had been sent to the Public Service Commission (PSC), Additional Solicitor General, Sumathi Dharmawardena told the PCoI, yesterday.
On 05 December Deputy Solicitor General Navavi said that the Attorney General’s Department had paid attention to the file on NTJ leader Zahran Hashim, sent by Terrorism Investigation Division (TID) seeking their advice, only three weeks after the Easter Sunday attacks. Chairman of the PCoI asked Navavi what the AG’s Department did about the file on Zahran, sent by the TID for legal advice. Navavi said that he received the file on 07 June 2017 and that he designated State Counsel Malik Azeez, who was under him, to handle the file. Both men insisted that the TID had not furnished the information it had in its possession about NTJ and Zahran until 2019.
Additional Solicitor General, Sumathi Dharmawardena was called before the PCoI to shed more light on the matter. Dharmawardena is also in charge of administration at the AG’s Department. Dharmawardena said that in 2019, he testified before the Parliamentary Select Committee (PSC) on the Easter Sunday attacks on the file TID had sent.
Dharmawardena added that he had drawn Attorney General Dappula de Livera’s attention to the final report of the PSC on or around 24 February 2020. The following day, Livera had recommended that an inquiry be conducted on Navavi and Azeez. Initially, the investigation was to be conducted by Deputy Solicitor General, Susantha Balapatabendi.
However on 13 March 2020, a three-member committee consisting of Senior Additional Solicitor General, Sarath Jayamanne, Balapatabendi and Senior Deputy Solicitor General, Mayadunne Corea was appointed. Jayamanne resigned from the committee on 29 May 2020 and on 01 June 2020, Additional Solicitor General, Priyantha Nawana was made the head of the Committee, Dharmawardena said.
The committee completed the investigation in July 2020 and the report had been sent to him, Dharmawardena said. The document contained draft charge sheets. It was given to Acting Solicitor General Sanjay Rajaratnam for further recommendations. On 27 July 2020, Rajaratnam had recommended disciplinary action, Dharmawardena said.
Shavindra Fernando, PC, who appeared for Navavi then brought Dharmawardena’s attention to a letter the AG sent to acting IGP on 18 June 2020. In the letter Livera has said law officers of the AG’s Department had done nothing wrong.
Fernando: “On 10 June 2019, the coordinating officer to the AG repeated the claim in a press release. It is obvious that AG didn’t think Navavi and Azeez had done anything wrong.” Fernando then asked the PCoI to summon State Counsel, Nishara Jayaratne as she was responsible for issuing press releases.
Jayaratne arrived at PCoI last Friday and soon got into a heated argument with Fernando, who accused her of contempt of PCoI. Jayaratne, who had appeared without a lawyer, sought legal advice and PCoI granted her time till yesterday.
Jayaratne yesterday appeared with another counsel from the AG’s Department and Fernando objected to it. However, Senior Deputy Solicitor General Vikum de Abrew said the counsel could appear on behalf of Jayaratne.
De Abrew also said that PSC had responded, on 15 December 2020, to the report the AG’s Department sent on Navavi and Azeez.
Chairman of the PCoI: “If you want to say something about what the PSC said about your recommendation, please let us know through the Department.”
Then the cross examination of Jayaratne began.
Shavindra Fernando PC: “The letter the AG sent to the acting IGP on 18 June 2020 states that the law officers of the AG’s Department had done nothing wrong. Isn’t this his opinion on the matter?”
Senior Deputy Solicitor General Vikum de Abrew said: “My learned friend has asked this question 18 times before. The witness has already responded.”
Fernando: “I am repeating myself because I didn’t get a straight answer. The letter to the acting IGP reflected the AG’s opinion. Isn’t that so?”
Jayaratne: “This letter doesn’t contain the AG’s opinion. It contains instructions to the then acting IGP. Twice the AG said, “I advise.” There are two sides to a coin. The AG advises the acting IGP to conduct further investigations because the file is incomplete. On the other hand, we don’t need to inform the acting IGP if our law officers have made lapses.”
Fernando then told PCoI that Jayaratne was not giving straight forward answers just like she had done the previous day. He again urged the PCoI to consider Jayaratne guilty of contempt of PCoI.
Jayaratne said that it was unfair to make the allegation and that it was an attempt to tarnish her image. She said: “I never insulted the commission. I answered all the questions. They are trying to tarnish my reputation and the post I hold.”
The Chairman of the PCoI said that she was guilty of contempt, but the other commissioners were of the view that she was not.
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AG not bound by its recommendations, yet to receive report
PCoI on Easter Sunday attacks:
By Shamindra Ferdinando
Attorney General Dappula de Livera, PC is not bound by recommendations made by the Presidential Commission of Inquiry (P CoI) into the 2019 Easter Sunday carnage, or presidential directives in that regard, according to authoritative sources.
They said that the AG couldn’t under any circumstances initiate legal proceedings until he had received the full PCoI report.
President Gotabaya Rajapaksa received the PCoI report on Feb 1. The President’s Office delivered a set of PCoI reports to Speaker Mahinda Yapa Abeywardena on Feb 23, a day after the report was presented to the cabinet of ministers. The Island raised the matter with relevant authorities in the wake of a section of the media reporting the PCoI recommending punitive measures against former President Maithripala Sirisena, Defence Secretary Hemasiri Fernando, IGP Pujitha Jayasundera, Chief of State Intelligence Senior DIG Nilantha Jayawardena, Chief of National Intelligence retired DIG Sisira Mendis and All Ceylon Makkal Congress (ACMC) leader and Samagi Jana Balavegaya MP Rishad Bathiudeen et al over the Easter Sunday carnage.
Sources pointed out that due to the inordinate delay in sharing the PCoI report with the AG, the department hadn’t been able to take preliminary measures required to initiate the proceedings. Sources said that a team of officers would take at least six weeks or more to examine the report before tangible measures could be taken.
With the AG scheduled to retire on May 24, 2021, even if the AG Department received the P CoI it would be quite a tough task to initiate proceedings ahead of retirement, sources said. However, in terms of the 20th Amendment to the Constitution enacted in last October, both the AG and the IGP could receive extensions beyond 60 at the President’s discretion.
Dappula de Livera received an Acting appointment as the AG a week after the Easter Sunday carnage whereas his predecessor Jayantha Jayasuriya, PC, was elevated to Chief Justice.
Responding to another query, sources said that the Attorney General two weeks ago requested Secretary to the President for a copy of the P CoI. However, the AG was yet to receive one, sources said. In spite of the AG not receiving a P CoI copy, the AG had instructed the IGP to obtain a copy of the report when he requested the police to complete investigations into the Easter Sunday carnage. The AG issued specific instructions after having examined police files pertaining to the investigations.
The IGP, too, hadn’t received a copy so far though some sections of the report were in the public domain.
Agriculture Minister Mahindananda Aluthgamage displayed at a live political programme on Derana a copy of the P CoI report he received at the cabinet meeting earlier in the day.
Sources said that the Attorney General’s Department couldn’t decide on a course of action in respect of the Easter carnage on the basis of a section of the report. In terms of the Commission of Inquiry Act (Section 24), the AG enjoyed significant powers/authority in respect of investigations; sources said adding that the Department urgently required both the P CoI report and police investigations report. The Attorney General’s Department has raised the delay in receiving a P CoI report amidst the Catholic Church attacking the government over the same issue.
Sources said that ministerial committee appointed to study the P CoI report couldn’t decide on how to proceed with the recommendations and the matter was entirely in the hands of the AG. Sources pointed out that the delay on the part of the government to release the report had received the attention of sections of the international media, including the New York Times. Public Security Minister retired Rear Admiral Sarath Weerasekera having met Malcolm Cardinal Ranjith at the Bishop’s House on Dec 8, 2020 said that the AG would get a copy of the P CoI report once the President received it. Minister Weerasekera said that the CID had handed over the relevant files after having completed investigations into eight blasts. Referring to the Parliamentary Select Committee (PSC) report on the Easter Sunday carnage, the former Navy Chief of Staff said that all such documents would have to be brought to one place and considered before initiating legal proceedings. Acknowledging that there could be delays, lawmaker Weerasekera said that on the instructions of the Attorney General a 12-member team of lawyers was working on the case. The minister vowed to expose the mastermind behind the Easter Sunday attacks. Investigations continued while some of those wanted were overseas, the minister said.
The minister acknowledged that the Attorney General couldn’t proceed without the P CoI report. Minister Weerasekera reiterated that once the President received the P CoI report, it would be sent to the Attorney General. The minister said that there were documents two to three feet high that needed scrutiny. The minister assured comprehensive investigation. The minister said that investigations pertaining to eight blasts had been completed and the reports handed over to the AG. However, the Attorney General had found shortcomings in those investigations.
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JVP picks holes in PCoI report
By Saman Indrajith
The Presidential Commission of Inquiry on the Easter Sunday bombings had failed to identify the mastermind of , the JVP said yesterday.
Addressing the media at the party headquarters in Pelawatte, JVP Propaganda Secretary MP Vijitha Herath said that the PCoI report had levelled accusations against former President Maithripala Sirisena, former IGP and head of intelligence for their dereliction of duty, shirking of responsibilities and not taking action to prevent the attacks and negligence. There were reference to the causes of the terror attacks and actions to be taken to avoid such attacks and the influence of extremist organisations. “However, there is no mention of the mastermind of the attacks, the handlers of the attackers and those whose interests the carnage served. It is also not mentioned whether there has been any foreign or local organisation behind those attacks. As per the PCoI report the attack took place as a result of culmination of extremism.
“According to the PCoI the extremist activities were a result of the prevailing political situation then. The entire nation was waiting to see who was responsible and who masterminded those attacks. The PCoI has failed to identify the true culprits responsible for the terror attacks. The report says that the leader of the suicide cadres killed himself in the attacks and it was a puzzle. That means those who are actually responsible for the attacks are still at large. The report does not provide exact details of the sources of the attacks. The PCoI had sittings for one year and five months. It summoned various persons and got their statements but it has failed to shed any light on the terror attacks. Everybody knows that the top leaders of the government and heads of security and intelligence establishments failed in their duties. Ranil Wickremesinghe was the second in command and he too is bound by the responsibility but the PCoI report fails to identify him as one of the persons against whom legal action should be instituted. The PCoI has treated Wickremesinghe and former President Maithripala Sirisena differently. We are not telling that this report is a total failure but we cannot accept this as a complete report. The PCoI handed over its report to the President on Feb 1. After 23 days it was sent to Parliament. Now, a copy of the report is there in the parliamentary library for the perusal of MPs.”
Herath said that the PCoI did not have powers to take punitive action. “It only has powers to name those responsible and recommend action to be taken against those named.